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Botany - Section A

1.

When both male and female flowers are present on the same plant, then plant is said to be:
1. Bisexual
2. Monoecious
3. Unisexual
4. Dioecious

2.

An important biofertilizer in paddy fields is :
1. Azospirillum
2. Azotobacter
3. Anabaena
4. Rhizobium

3.

Consider the following statements:

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

4.

Flowers, which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
(1) water
(2) bee
(3) wind
(4) bat

5.

Alexander von Humbolt described for the first time
(1) ecological biodiversity
(2) law of limiting factor
(3) species area relationships
(4) population growth equation

6.

Free-central placentation is found in
(1) Dianthus
(2) Argemone
(3) Brassica
(4) Citrus

7.

In the results, F₂ generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross in pea plant. The ratio of yellow and wrinkled seeded pea plant is
(1) 1/16
(2) 3/16
(3) 4/16
(4) 7/16

8.

A dihybrid test cross shows a frequency of recombination of 50 %. The best explanation will be:

9.

Photosynthesis is a-
a. Biochemical process
b. Physical process
c. Chemical process
d. Physico-chemical process

10.

VNTR stands for
(1) Variable number of Tendon repeats
(2) variable number for tendem repeats
(3) variable number of tandem repeats
(4) variable number of term repeats

11.

Mesophyll in dicot leaves has two type of cell namely_________.

(1) Palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma
(2) Pith and Protoxylem
(3) Xylem and phloem
(4) Epidermis and endodermis

12.

Classification is not associated with
a. Grouping into convenient categories
b. Based on easily observable characters
c. Purpose is to study all the living organisms
d. Writing scientific names in impressive and understandable way.

13.

Taxonomic groups or categories are not
1. Distinct Biological entities
2. Morphological aggregates
3. Part of overall taxonomic arrangement
4. Rank denoting entities

14.

Which one is true of parenchyma
(A)help in storage, secretion and photosynthesis
(B)intercellular spaces are schizogenous in origin
(C)universal tisssue
(D)All of the above

15.

The specialised cells to fix atmospheric nitrogen is called as

1. Heterocyst
2. Heterocyte
3. Heterocoem
4. Heterolog

16.

Primary productivity of an terrestrial ecosystem depends upon
1. Photosynthetic capacity of plants.
2. A variety of environmental factors,
3. Availability of nutrients
4. All of the above.

17.

Find out the incorrect statement

18.

Mitosis doesn't occur in

1. Diploid cell

2. Haploid cell of lower plants

3. Haploid cell of social insect

4. Haploid cell of animals

19.

The division of Prophase in the five phases is done on the basis of

1. Chromosomal behavior

2. Chromosomal pattern

3. Chromosomal movement

4. Chromosome structure

20.

The full potential of penicillin, an antibiotic was established by

(1) Alexander Fleming
(2) Ernest Chain
(3) Howard Florey
(4) Both B and C

21.

Which of the following is not correct regarding the extinction of species?

(1) Some groups like fishes appear to be more vulnerable to extinction
(2) More than 15500 species worldwide are facing the threat of extinction
(3) Presently, 12 percent of all bird species in the world face the threat of extinction.
(4) Both (2)and (3)

22.

If an yeast performs Fermentation such that the concentration of the Alcohol reaches to ………, then it posions itself to ……..

(1) 7 per cent, the stage of no budding
(2) 5 per cent, the stage of no budding
(3) 13 per cent, death
(4) 10 per cent, death

23.

The first step of decarboxylation in cellular respiration is

(1) Conversion of PGAL to DHAP
(2) Conversion of PGAL to PGA
(3) Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
(4) Conversion of BPGA to PGA

24.

More than one PGR are not involved in which of the following physiological effect?

(1) Dormancy in seeds or buds
(2) Abscission, Apical Dominance
(3) Senescence
(4) Fruit Ripening

25.

Earlier classification (Before Whittaker) has placed which of the following in the same kingdom Plantae and now they are no more considered under plants?

(1) Monera, Protista and Fungi
(2) Monera and Protista
(3) Animals, Protista, Fungi
(4) Fungi and Monera, Animalia

26.

Hypogynous flower
1. China rose
2. Mustard
3. Brinjal
4. Guava
Doesn't hold true.

27.

Gametophyte in the pteridophytes is
(i) Small, inconspicuous.
(ii) Long-lived, unicellular.
(iii) Mostly photosynthetic thalloid or saprophytic.
(iv) Short lived, haploid.
How many statements are correct with respect to gametophyte?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One

28.

29.

30.

Identify the correct sequence of steps in decomposition
A. Humification.
B. Fragmentation of detritus.
C. Leaching.
D. Mineralisation.
1. B$\to$ A$\to$ C$\to$ D
2. A$\to$ C$\to$ B$\to$ D
3. B$\to$ C$\to$ A$\to$ D
4. D$\to$ A$\to$ B$\to$ C

31.

Which of the following was not a character studied by Mendel in garden pea?

32.

Which of the following is not correctly matched?
PGR Function
1. Auxin Flowering in mango.
2. ABA Dormancy of seed.
3. GA3 Breaking seed dormancy.
4. Ethylene Sprouting of potato.

33.

Each pole receives half the chromosome number of the
parent cell, is true for which stage?
1. Anaphase - II
2. Anaphase - I
3. Telophase-I
4. Telophase-II

34.

Which of the statement is not true for given structures?

1. They both are made up of nucleoprotein
2. They both infect plants and bacteria
3. They are obligate intracellular parasites
4. A and B have RNA & DNA as genetics material respectively

35.

Use of some microbes as biofertiliser to enhance crop productivity is called
1. Organic farming
2. Marine farming
3. Micro farming
4. Compost farming

Botany - Section B

36.

The cytoplasm of bacteria appears granular due to the presence of
1. 80S ribosomes
2. Chromatophores
3. 70S ribosomes
4. Genophore

37.

White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to a parasitic fungus known as
1. Puccinia graminis
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Albugo candida
4. Mucor mucedo

38.

For the fluid mosaic model of membrane given by Singer and Nicolson, which of the following conditions are not associated?
1. Lipids enable the lateral movement of proteins in the membrane
2. Fluid nature of membrane helps in secretion
3. Lipids can show flip flop movement from one layer of membrane to other
4. The fluidity of membrane is mainly due to oligosaccharides

39.

Which one of the following is not a broadly utilitarian aspect of biodiversity ?
1. Pollination
2. Climate moderation
3. Source of Oxygen
4. Source of medicine

40.

Select the correct option with respect to following graph :-

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

41.

Consider the following statements about vivipary:

The correct statements are:
1. I, II, III
2. I and II
3. II and III
4. I and III

42.

Which of the following would you expect to see as products of the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
1. carbon dioxide, NADPH and ATP
2. NADPH, $P_i$and ATP
3. carbon dioxide, ATP and glucose
4. glucose,${\mathrm{NADP}}^{+}$ and ADP

43.

The respiration cost ______________ along successive trophic levels.
1. Remains constant
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. Is variable

44.

Growth rate of a natural population will be equal to zero when:
(1) N/K is exactly one
(2) N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
(3) N/K equals zero
(4) mortality is greater than natality

45.

Which among the following functions is/are incorrect with respect to DNA function?
(a) Control of metabolism
(b) Produces its replica
(c) Undergoes mutation
(d) Acts as enzyme

1. a, c
2. a, d
3. b, c
4. d

46.

Select the incorrect match
1.$\mathrm{\varphi }\times 174-5386\mathrm{nucleotides}$
2.$\mathrm{\lambda }\mathrm{phage}-48502\mathrm{bp}$
3.$\mathrm{E}.\mathrm{coli}-4.6\times {10}^5\mathrm{bp}$
4.$\mathrm{Haploid}\mathrm{human}\mathrm{cell}-3.3\times {10}^9\mathrm{bp}$

47. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most severe between
1. Closely related organisms growing in the same niche
2. Closely related organisms growing in the different niche
3. Distantly related organisms growing in the same habitat
4. Distantly related organisms growing in the different niches

48. Given below are two statements:

49. Given below are two statements:

50. The companion cells are specialised parenchymatous cells which are closely associated with the sieve tubes elements. The sieve tube elements and companion cells are connected through
1. Perforations in their common walls
2. Perforations in their end walls
3. Pit fields between their common longitudinal walls
4. Bordered pits in their oblique end plates

Zoology - Section A

51.

LH surge:

52.

Describe urine in relationship to glomerular filtration tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion urine:

53.

Karn & Penrose showed that birth weight follows a normal distribution, that mortality for newborns is greater for those either under-or over-weight, and that the mean birth weight (7 lbs) coincides with that showing minimum mortality. The type of natural selection operating here is shown by the graph :

1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. Both (a) and (b)

54.

Smooth muscles are
(1) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
(2) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(3) involuntary, cylindrical, striated
(4) voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate

55.

Skeletal muscles appear striated due to the presence of two characteristic proteins in alternating dark and light bands. Which of the following is a correct match of the protein with its light refractive property and color?
Protein Colour Property
(1) Myosin Light Anisotropic
(2) Actin Dark Anisotropic
(3) Myosin Dark Isotropic
(4) Actin Light Isotropic

56.

What does the slogan "Hum Do Hamare Do" aim at?
1. Raising of the marriageable age
2. Family Planning
3. Immunisation
4. Economic growth

57.

Which among the following is incorrect regarding connective tissue ?
(1) They are named so because they link and support other tissues of the body.
(2) They are most abundant tissue in the body of complex animals.
(3) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective tissue.
(4) All connective tissues except blood secrete collagen or elastin.

58.

State which is true:

I. Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
II. Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to defects in the female partner only
III. Complete lactation could help in contraception
IV. Creating awareness can help create a reproductively healthy society
1. I, III, IV
2. I, II, III
3. II, III
4. III, IV

59.

Which of the following cannot be the parasites of intestine?

(1) Tapeworm
(2) Pinworm
(3) Virus
(4) Threadworm

60.

If an infected person is bitten by a female Anopheles mosquito, what will it takes up with its blood meal to become another infected mosquito for the spread of disease?
1. Gametocytes of plasmodium
2. Sporophyte of plasmodium
3. Sporozoites
4. Haemozoin

61.

The process of reabsorption is carried by
1.Tubular endothelial cells
2.Tubular epithelial cells
3.Tubular lacunae cells
4.Tubular glandular cells

62.

For the ejection of urine the voluntary signal is given by

(1) ANS
(2) CNS
(3) PNS
(4) Afferent arterioles

63.

Which of the following event is last in the action of Bt toxin?

(1) Binding to epithelial cells
(2) Swelling
(3) Lysis
(4) Creating pores

64.

Which of the following event will occur before death of insect as an action of Bt toxin?

(1) Lysis
(2) Swelling
(3) Pore formation
(4) Binding to epithelial cells

65.

The first transgenic cow was….which was able to produce human protein enriched milk……
1. Dolly, 2.3g/L
2. Rosie, 2.3g/L
3. Rosie, 2.4g/L
4. Dolly, 3.2 g/L

66.

The LMM of muscle fiber is
1. Tail
2. Head
3. Short arm
4. Both 1 and 3

67.

The membrane of neuron is polarized because

(1) Different kind of lipids are there over membrane
(2) Different kinds of ion channels are there in membrane
(3) These ion channels are selectively permeable to different ions
(4) Both B and C

68.

The ................ across the plasma membrane at site A is called ............, which is termed as ........

(1) Resting membrane potential, action potential, nerve impulse
(2) Electric potential difference, action potential, nerve impulse
(3) Resting membrane potential, nerve impulse, action potential
(4) Action potential, electric potential difference, active potential

69.

Which of the following is not true for cerebrum?

(1) Forms the major part of the human brain
(2) A deep cleft divides transversely into two halves
(3) Cerebral hemispheres are longitudinal halves
(4) The hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum

70.

A piece of nucleic acid used to find a gene, by forming a hybrid with it, is called a
1. Probe
2. Vector
3. Restriction sequence
4. Retrovirus

71.

The name of the blood vessel delivering blood directly to the glomerulus is the

(1) renal artery
(2) interlobar artery
(3) arcuate artery
(4) afferent arteriole

72.

Adenohypophysis consists of
1. Pars distalis
2. Pars intermedia
3. Pars nervosa
4. Both 1 and 2

73.

Androgens are secreted by

(1) Interstitial cells
(2) Seminiferous tubules
(3) Adrenal cortex
(4) Both 1 and 3

74.

Which of the following is true about the given organism?

1.It is a medusa form of Aurelia
2.It is Fresh water sponge
3.Central canal system is present in it
4.It’s mouth is formed first

75.

Which of the following is not economically important insect?
1.Apis
2.Bombyx
3.Laccifer
4.Locust

76.

Find the correct statement
1. System at equilibrium never perform work
2. System at non-equilibrium never perform work
3. Biological system attains equilibrium
4. Both A and C

77.

Bt cotton is not:

78.

The significance of the 'heat shock' method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate:

79.

Cancer causing genes are called:

80.

If you want to isolate DNA in pure form from a fungal cell, the first enzyme required normally would be:

81.

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

82.

The natural selection operating as shown in the given figure is called as:

1.	Disruptive
2.	Directional
3.	Stabilizing
4.	Retrogressive

83.

Common brand of male contraceptive provided by family welfare services is
1. Gossypol
2. Nirodh
3. Saheli
4. Norgynon

84.

Select the correct statement regarding spermiogenesis
1. lnvolves transformation of spermatids intospermatozoa
2. lnvolves release of spermatozoa from seminiferous tubule into the lumen
3. lt is followed by meiosis ll that restores the haploid number of chromomes inspermatozoa
4. All of these

85.

Excess of growth hormone in adult leads to ?
1. Gigantism
2. Acromegaly
3. Dwarfism
4. Cretinism

Zoology - Section B

86.

Each of the following statements concerning pneumonia are correct, except
1. It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Hemophilus influenzae
2. Pneumonia bacteria grow better at 33°C than at 37°C, hence they tend to cause the disease in upper respiratory tract rather than the lower respiratory tract
3. Bacteria infects alveoli of lungs
4. In pneumonia finger nails turn bluish in colour

87.

The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
1. Atrioventricular bundle
2. Purkinje system
3. Sinoatrial node
4. Atrioventricular node

88.

The anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle causes deposition or accumulation of
1. Gluconic acid
2. Lactic acid
3. Pyruvic acid
4. Hydrochloric acid

89.

If the heart rate is 60 per minute, the duration of each cardiac cycle will be:

90. What is incorrect regarding the ovary in humans?

91. At a particular locus, frequency of "A" allele is 0.6 and that of "a" is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
1. 0.36
2. 0.16
3. 0.24
4. 0.48

92. Choose the correct statement
1. In a protein, the first amino acid is the C-terminal amino acid
2. Secondary structure is essential for many biological activities of proteins
3. At some points, a protein molecule folds upon itself like a hollow woollen ball forming tertiary structure
4.\(\alpha -\)pleated sheet and\(\beta-\)helix are tertiary structures found in proteins

93. Given below are two statements:

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

94. Ribs are bicephalic as they have

95. Match the biological molecule listed under column I with their biological function listed under column II. Choose the answer which gives correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

96. What is the value of tidal volume in a normal healthy man?
1. Approximately 6000-8000 ml/min
2. 1000-1100 ml/min
3. 2500-3000 ml/min
4. Approximately 8000-12000 ml/min

97. Which factors affect the dissociation of\(O_2\)from Hb?
1.\(pH, pO_2, pCO_2\)and temperature
2. Only pH
3. Salinity, temperature and\(pCO_2\)
4.\(HCO^-_3\)ion concentration, pH and salinity ]
\

98. Read following sentences carefully and select the incorrect one
1. During expiration\(pO_2\)of expired air is more than alveolar air but less than atmospheric air
2. During expiration\(pCO_2\)of expired air is less than\(pCO_2\)of alveolar air and more than\(pCO_2\)of atmospheric air
3. Sum of partial pressure of all gases at sea level is 760 mm Hg
4. The partial pressure of\(O_2\)and\(CO_2\)in the systemic veins is same as that in pulmonary vein

99. Match column I with column II

Select the option which shows the correct match
1. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
2.a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
3.a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
4. a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

100. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
I. In blue/white colony selection, recombinants produce blue colonies due to insertional inactivation of β - galactosidase.
ll. Transformants produced during genetic engineering include both recombinants and non-recombinants.
1. Both statements are correct
2. Only statement I is incorrect
3. Only statement Iis incorrect
4. Both statements are incorrect

Chemistry - Section A

101.

The ratio of the wavelengths of the last lines of the Balmer and Lyman series is-
1. 4:1
2. 27:5
3. 3:1
4. 9:4

102.

How much oxygen gas (O₂) at standard temperature (0°C) and pressure (1 atm) is required to completely combust 1 liter of propane gas (C₃H₈) under the same conditions?
1. 7L
2. 6L
3. 5L
4. 10L

103.

Elements that generally exhibit multiple oxidation states and whose ions in an aqueous medium are usually colored are:
1. Metalloids
2. Transition elements
3. Non-metals
4. Noble gases

104.

Compound that does not exhibit hydrogen bonding is-

1.	CH3CH2OH	2.
3.		4.

105.

IUPAC name ofis-
1. But-2-en-2,3-diol
2. Pent-2-en-2,3-diol
3. 2-Methylbut-2-en-2,3-diol
4. Hex-2-en-2,3-diol

106.

The general molecular formula, which represents the hom*ologous series of alkanols is
1. C_nH_2nO₂
2. C_nH_2nO
3. C_nH_2n+1O
4. C_nH_2n+2O

107.

A reaction A₂ + B₂$\to$2AB occurs by thefollowing mechanism:
A₂ $\to$A + A .....(slow)
A+ B₂$\to$AB + B .....(fast)
A + B$\to$AB .....(fast)
Its order would be:
1. 3/2
2. 1
3. 0
4. 2

108.

Which of the following is the correct statement?
1. F₂ has higher dissociation energy than Cl₂
2. F has higher electron affinity than Cl
3. HF is stronger acid than HCl
4. Boiling point increases down the group in halogens

109.

Which of the following is more basic than aniline?
1. Diphenylamine
2. Triphenylamine
3.p-nitroaniline
4. Benzylamine

110.

The correct option about the presence of H-bond in nucleotides is:
1. A-T, G-C
2. A-G, T-C
3. G-T, A-C
4. A-A, T-T

111.

R-CH₂-CH₂OHcan be converted intoRCH₂CH₂COOH. The correct sequence of reagents is:
1. PBr₃, KCN, H⁺
2. PBr₃,KCN, H₂
3.KCN, H⁺
4. HCN, PBr₃,H⁺

112.

[Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ is complex which have
1. Square planar structure and diamagnetic nature
2. Tetrahedral structure and paramagnetic nature
3. Square planar structure and paramagnetic nature
4. Tetrahedral structure and diamagnetic behaviour.

113.

K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is 60% ionised. Then the value of Van't Hoff factor is
1. 1.6
2. 2.4
3. 3
4. 3.4

114.

The correct structure(s) of D-glyceraldehyde is/are:

1.		2.
3.		4.	All of these

115.

4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 litres of volume at NTP. The gas may be:

116.

The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

(1) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol
(2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
(3) 2-cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
(4) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile

117.

One of the essential α-amino acids is:

118.

An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is:
1. Ruthenocene
2. Grignard's reagent
3. Ferrocene
4. Cobaltocene

119.

The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is
(1) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ringp-electron system.
(2) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.
(3) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized
(4) Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ringp-electron system.

120.

A polar molecule among the following is -
1. BF₃
2. SF₄
3. SiF₄
4. XeF₄

121.

Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following ?
1. Zn-Hg with HCl
2. LiAlH₄
3. H₂ and Pt as catalyst
4. Glycol with KOH

122.

The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is
1. 16
2. 32
3. 4
4. 8

123.

The correct order ofdecreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti (22), V (23), Cr (24) and Mn (25) is
(1) Cr > Mn > V > Ti
(2) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(3) Mn > Cr > Ti > V
(4) Ti > V > Cr > Mn

124.

Nitrogen gas is liberated by thermal decomposition of :
(1)${\mathrm{NH}}_4{\mathrm{NO}}_2$
(2)${\mathrm{NaN}}_3$
(3)${\left({\mathrm{NH}}_4\right)}_2{\mathrm{Cr}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_7$
(4) All

125.

${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$has higher boiling point than${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{S}$ because.
(1)${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$ is a smaller molecule and hence more closely packed
(2) The bond angle in${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$ is more than in${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{S}$ and hence the former molecules are more tightly packed
(3) Of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in liquid${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$
(4) The latent heat of vaporisation is higher for${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$ than for${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{S}$

126.

A first-order reaction was started with a decimolar solutionof the reactant. After 8 minutes and 20 seconds, its concentration was found to be M/100. The rate constant of the reaction will be:
1.$4.6$$\times$${10}^{-3}se{c}^{-1}$
2.$16.6$$\times$${10}^{-3}$$se{c}^{-1}$
3.$24.6$$\times$${10}^{-3}$$se{c}^{-1}$
4.$40.6$$\times$${10}^{-3}$$se{c}^{-1}$

127.

(D)The reaction for the cell,
$Zn|Z{n}^{2+}(1.0M)||C{d}^{2+}(1.0M)|Cdis-$
$\left(A\right)Cd\to C{d}^{2+}+2e^{-}$
$\left(B\right)Z{n}^{2+}\to Zn–2e^{-}$
$\left(C\right)Cd+Z{n}^{2+}\to C{d}^{2+}+Zn$
$\left(D\right)Zn+C{d}^{2+}\to Cd+Z{n}^{2+}$

128. Calculate the e.m.f. for the following cell reaction:
\(F e^{2+}+Z n → Z n^{2+}+F e\)
The standard potentials\(E^{\circ} \text {,for the half reactions are as}\)

\(Z n →Z n^{2+}+2 e ; E^{\circ}=+0.76 \mathrm{~V}\)
\(F e → F e^{2+}+2 e ; E^{\circ}=+0.41 \mathrm{~V}\)
1. – 0.35 V
2. + 0.35 V
3. + 1.17 V
4. – 1.17 V

129.

$C_P-C_V=R$. This R is :
1. Change in K.E.
2. Change in rotational energy
3. work done which system can do on expanding the gas per mol per degree increase in temperature
4. All correct

130.

Which of the following elements has the strongest metallic bond?

131.

Which of the following shows bond in silicone?
1.$\mathrm{Si}—\mathrm{C}—\mathrm{Si}—\mathrm{O}—\mathrm{Si}$
2.$\mathrm{Si}—\mathrm{C}—\mathrm{Si}—\mathrm{C}—\mathrm{Si}$
3.$—\stackrel{\mathbf{|}}{\mathrm{Si}}—\mathrm{O}—\stackrel{\mathbf{|}}{\mathrm{Si}}—\mathrm{O}—\stackrel{\mathbf{|}}{\mathrm{Si}}—$
4.$\mathrm{Si}—\mathrm{Si}—\mathrm{Si}—\mathrm{Si}$

132.

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is$1{\mathrm{s}}^{2}2{\mathrm{s}}^{2}2{\mathrm{p}}^3$,the simplest formula for this compound is:
1. ${\mathrm{Mg}}_2{\mathrm{X}}_3$
2. ${\mathrm{MgX}}_2$
3.${\mathrm{Mg}}_2\mathrm{X}$
4. ${\mathrm{Mg}}_3{\mathrm{X}}_2$

133.

Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

1.
2.
3.
4.

134.

The isobutyl group among the following is:

1.
2.	CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–
3.
4.

135.

Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is:
1. Benzoic acid
2. Nitrobenzene
3. Toluene
4. Benzene

Chemistry - Section B

136.

Which of the following reactions cannot form new carbon-carbon bonds?
1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation

137.

A process among the following shows decrease in entropy is :
1.\(2 \text H \left(g\right)\)\(\rightarrow\)\(\text H_{2} \left(g\right)\)
2. Evaporation of water
3. Expansion of a gas at a constant temperature
4. Sublimation of solid to gas

138.

What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in${\mathrm{K}}_4\left[\mathrm{Fe}{\left(\mathrm{CN}\right)}_6\right]$based on crystal field theory:
1.${\mathrm{e}}^4{\mathrm{t}}_{2\mathrm{g}}^2$
2.${\mathrm{t}}_{2\mathrm{g}}^4{\mathrm{e}}_{\mathrm{g}}^2$
3.${\mathrm{t}}_{2\mathrm{g}}^6{\mathrm{e}}_{\mathrm{g}}^0$
4.${\mathrm{e}}^3{\mathrm{t}}_{2\mathrm{g}}^3$

139.

Which of the following reaction in neither oxidation nor reduction ?
1. Cr${\mathrm{O}}_4^{2-}$$\to$ Cr${}_2$${\mathrm{O}}_7^{2-}$
2. Cr$\to$ CrCl₃
3. Na$\to$ Na⁺
4. 2S${}_2$${\mathrm{O}}_3^{2-}$_$\to$S${}_4$${\mathrm{O}}_6^{2-}$

140.

Calculate the molal depression constant of a solvent which has freezing point 16.6⁰ andlatent heat of fusion 43 calories.
1. 3.3
2. 3.86
3. 2.9
4. 38.6

141.

$CC{l}_4$does not show hydrolysis but$SiC{l}_4$is readily hydrolysed because:
(1) carbon cannot expand its octet but silicon can expand.
(2) electronegativity of carbon is higher than of silicon
(3) IP of carbon is higher than of silicon
(4) carbon forms double and triple bonds but not silicon

142.

An alkene that gives a mixture of ketones only on ozonolysis, from the following, is :

1.		2.
3.		4.

143.

What is the alteration in the oxidation state of carbon in the given reaction?
\(\mathrm{{CH_4}_{(g)} + 4{Cl_2}_{(g)} \rightarrow {CCl_4}_{(l)} + 4 HCl_{(g)}}\)
1. 0 to +4
2. –4 to +4
3. 0 to –4
4. +4 to +4

144.

Equilibrium constants K₁, andK₂for the following equilibria
$\mathrm{NO}\left(\mathrm{g}\right)+\frac{1}{2}{\mathrm{O}}_2\stackrel{{\mathrm{K}}_1}{\rightleftharpoons }{\mathrm{NO}}_2\left(\mathrm{g}\right)\mathrm{and}$
$2{\mathrm{NO}}_2\left(\mathrm{g}\right)\stackrel{{\mathrm{K}}_2}{\rightleftharpoons }2\mathrm{NO}\left(\mathrm{g}\right)+{\mathrm{O}}_2$
are related as
1.${\mathrm{K}}_2=1/{\mathrm{K}}_1^2$
2.${\mathrm{K}}_2={\mathrm{K}}_1^2$
3.${\mathrm{K}}_2=1/{\mathrm{K}}_1$
4.${\mathrm{K}}_2={\mathrm{K}}_1/2$

145.

For the reaction,${\mathrm{H}}_2\left(\mathrm{g}\right)+{\mathrm{I}}_2\left(\mathrm{g}\right)\leftrightarrow 2\mathrm{HI}\left(\mathrm{g}\right)$the equilibrium constant K_pchanges with
1. Catalyst
2. Temperature
3. Total pressure
4. The amounts of H₂and I₂present

146.

Plants and living beings are examples of -
1.Isolated system
2.Adiabatic system
3.Open system
4.Closed system

147.

Benzoyl chloride can be prepared from benzoic acid by reacing the former with:
1.Cl₂, hv
2. SO₂
3.SOCl₂
4.Cl₂, H₂O

148.

Isobutyl bromide may be obtained from isobutylene and HBr in the presence of
1. Hydroquinone
2. Diphenylamine
3. Peroxide
4. All of the above

149. Which of the following combines with\(Fe ~(II) \)ions to form a brown complex?
1.\(N_2O \)
2.\(NO \)
3.\(N_2O_3 \)
4.\(N_2O_5 \)

150. In organic chemistry, what is the primary reason for using a reflux condenser?
1. To accelerate the reaction rate
2. To maintain a constant temperature
3. To minimize contamination
4. To prevent evaporation of reactants or solvents

Physics - Section A

151.

The motor of an engine is rotating about its axis with an angular velocity of 100 rpm. It comes to rest is 15 s, after being switched off. Assuming constant angular deceleration. What are the numbers of revolutions made by it before coming to rest?
1. 12.5
2. 40
3. 32.6
4. 15.6

152.

Two perfectly elastic particles A and B of equal mass traveling along the line joining them with velocities 15 m/s and 10 m/s. After the collision, their velocities will be
1. 10 m/s, 10 rn/s
2. 15 m/s, 15 m/s
3. 10 rn/s, 15 m/s
4. 15 m/s, 10 m/s

153.

If the mean free path of atoms is doubled then the pressure of the gas will become:
1. \(P/4\)
2. \(P/2\)
3. \(P/8\)
4. \(P\)

154.

A wire of length L and radius r is fixed at one end and a force F applied to the other end produces an extension l. The extension produced in another wire of the same material of length 2L and radius 2r by a force 2F is
1. l
2. 2l
3. l/2
4. 4l

155.

If L denotes the inductance of an inductor through which a current i is flowing, the dimensions of Li² are
(1) $M{L}^2{T}^{-2}$
(2) Not expressible in MLT
(3) $ML{T}^{-2}$
(4) LT

156.

The dimensional formula of wave number is
(1) $M^0{L}^0{T}^{-1}$
(2) $M^0{L}^{-1}{T}^0$
(3) $M^{-1}{L}^{-1}{T}^0$
(4) $M^0{L}^0{T}^0$

157.

A particle moves along X-axis in such a way that its coordinate X varies with time t according to the equation $x=(2-5t+6t^2)m$. The initial velocity of the particle is
(1) –5 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) –3 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

158.

A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still water with a velocity 10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim so as to take the shortest possible path to go to the south.
(1) 30° with downstream
(2) 60° with downstream
(3) 120° with downstream
(4) South

159.

A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle with constant speed. What should be the minimum speed so that the water from the bucket does not spill, when the bucket is at the highest position (Take g = 10 m/s²)
(1) 4 m/sec
(2) 6.25 m/sec
(3) 16 m/sec
(4) None of the above

160.

Equivalent resistance between the points A and B is (in Ω)

(1) $\frac{1}{5}$
(2) $1\frac{1}{4}$
(3) $2\frac{1}{3}$
(4) $3\frac{1}{2}$

161.

The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of currents is shown here. The current i will be

(1) 3 A
(2) 13 A
(3) 23 A
(4) – 3 A

162.

When a \(12~\Omega\) resistor is connected in parallel with a moving coil galvanometer, its deflection reduces from \(50\) divisions to \(10\) divisions. What will be the resistance of the galvanometer?
1.\(24~\Omega\)
2.\(36~\Omega\)
3.\(48~\Omega\)
4.\(60~\Omega\)

163.

A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it (where k is positive constant). If U(0) = 0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be (where U is the potential energy function)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

164.

Two rails of a railway track insulated from each other and the ground are connected to a milli voltmeter. What is the reading of voltmeter, when a train travels with a speed of \(180\) km/hr along the track.
(Given that the vertical component of earth's magnetic field is \(0.2\times 10^{-4}\) weber/m² and the rails are separated by \(1\)m)
1.\(10^{-2}\)V
2.\(10^{-4}\)V
3.\(10^{-3}\)V
4.\(1\)V

165.

An electron moves with a constant speed v along a circle of radius r. Its magnetic moment will be (e is the electron's charge)
(1) evr
(2) $\frac{1}{2}$evr
(3) ${\mathrm{\pi r}}^2$ev
(4) 2$\mathrm{\pi }$rev

166.

An astronaut orbiting the earth in a circular orbit 120 km above the surface of earth, gently drops a spoon out of space-ship. The spoon will
1. Fall vertically down to the earth
3. Move towards the moon
4. Will move along with space-ship
4. Will move in an irregular way then fall down

167.

Suppose, the acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface is 10$\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$ and at the surface of Mars, it is 4.0 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$. A 60 kg passenger goes from the earth to Mars in a spaceship moving with a constant velocity. Neglect all other objects in the sky. Which part of the figure best represents the weight (net gravitational force) of the passenger as a function of time ?

(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D

168.

A small-signal voltage V(t)=V_o sinωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C
(1) over a full cycle, the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source
(2) current I(t) is in phase with voltageV(t)
(3) current I(t) leads voltageV(t) by 180°
(4)current I(t) lags voltageV(t) by 90°

169.

If vectors A = cosωt $\hat{i}$+ sinωt$\hat{j}$ and B = (cosωt/2)$\hat{i}$+ (sinωt/2)$\hat{j}$ are functions of time, then the value of t at which they are orthogonal to each other
1. t=$\mathrm{\pi }$/4ω
2. t=$\mathrm{\pi }$/2ω
3. t=$\mathrm{\pi }$/ω
4. t=0

170.

A plane-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ₁ and μ₂ and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is:
1. R/2(μ_{1 +}μ₂)
2. R/2(μ_{1 -}μ₂)
3. R/(μ_{1 -}μ₂)
4. 2R/(μ₂- μ₁)

171.

Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance \(d\)apart. A stationary charge \(Q\) is placed at \(P\) in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance \(D\) from the centre \(O\) as shown in the figure.

The force on the charge \(Q\) is:

172.

The instantaneous displacement of a simple pendulum oscillator is given by$x=A\cos \left(\omega t+\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{4}\right)$ . Its speed will be maximum at time
(1)$\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{4\omega }$
(2)$\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{2\omega }$
(3)$\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{\omega }$
(4)$\frac{2\mathrm{\pi }}{\omega }$

173.

The potential energy of a particle with displacement X depends asU(X). The motion is simple harmonic, when (K is a positive constant)
(1)$U=\frac{K{X}^2}{2}$
(2)$U=K{X}^2$
(3)$U=K$
(4)$U=KX$$$
$$

174.

When a force is applied on a wire of uniform cross-sectional area $3\times {10}^{-6}{m}^2$and length 4m, the increase in length is 1 mm. Energy stored in it will be$\left(Y=2\times {10}^{11}N/m^2\right)$
1. 6250 J 2.0.177 J
3. 0.075 J 4.0.150 J

175.

A siphon in use is demonstrated in the following figure. The density of the liquid flowing in siphon is 1.5 gm/cc. The pressure difference between the point P and S will be

(1)${10}^5\mathrm{N}/\mathrm{m}$
(2)$2\times {10}^5\mathrm{N}/\mathrm{m}$
(3) Zero
(4) Infinity

176.

Equivalent capacitance between A and B is

(1) 8 μF
(2) 6 μF
(3) 26 μF
(4) 10/3 μF

177.

Fig. represents vertical sections of four wings moving horizontally in air. In which case the force is upwards
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

178.

A string of 7 m length has a mass of 0.035 kg. If the tension in the string is 60.5 N, then the speed of a wave on the string is :
(1) 77 m/s
(2) 102 m/s
(3) 110 m/s
(4) 165 m/s

179.

A truth table is given below. Which of the following has this type of truth table
A 0 1 0 1
B 0 0 1 1
y 1 0 0 0
(1) XOR gate
(2) NOR gate
(3) AND gate
(4) OR gate

180.

Electron volt is a unit of
(1) Potential
(2) Charge
(3) Power
(4) Energy

181.

There are${\mathrm{n}}_1$ photons of frequency${\mathrm{\gamma }}_1$ in a beam of light. In an equally energetic beam, there are${\mathrm{n}}_2$ photons of frequency${\mathrm{\gamma }}_2$ . Then the correct relation is -
1.$\frac{{\mathrm{n}}_1}{{\mathrm{n}}_2}=1$
2.$\frac{{\mathrm{n}}_1}{{\mathrm{n}}_2}=\frac{{\mathrm{\gamma }}_1}{{\mathrm{\gamma }}_2}$
3.$\frac{{\mathrm{n}}_1}{{\mathrm{n}}_2}=\frac{{\mathrm{\gamma }}_2}{{\mathrm{\gamma }}_1}$
4.$\frac{{\mathrm{n}}_1}{{\mathrm{n}}_2}=\frac{{\mathrm{\gamma }}_1^2}{{\mathrm{\gamma }}_2^2}$

182.

It is hotter for the same distance over the top of fire than it is inside of it, mainly because
(1) Air conducts heat upwards
(2) Heat is radiated upwards
(3) Convection takes more heat upwards
(4) Convection, conduction and radiation all contribute significantly transferring heat upwards

183.

Colour of shining bright star is an indication of its
(1) Distance from the earth
(2) Size
(3) Temperature
(4) Mass

184.

A Container having 1 mole of a gas at a temperature 27°C has a movable piston which maintains constant pressure in a container of 1 atm. The gas is compressed until the temperature becomes 127°C. The work done is:
(1) 703 J
(2) 831J
(3) 121 J
(4) 2035 J

185.

In terms of Rydberg's constant R, the wave number of the first Balmer line is
(1) R
(2) 3R
(3) $\frac{5\mathrm{R}}{36}$
(4) $\frac{8\mathrm{R}}{9}$

Physics - Section B

186.

The first line in the Lyman series has wavelength $\mathrm{\lambda }$. The wavelength of the first line in Balmer series is
(1)$\frac{2}{9}\mathrm{\lambda }$
(2) $\frac{9}{2}\mathrm{\lambda }$
(3) $\frac{5}{27}\mathrm{\lambda }$
(4) $\frac{27}{5}\mathrm{\lambda }$

187.

Order of magnitude of density of uranium nucleus is (${\mathrm{m}}_{\mathrm{P}}=1.67\times {10}^{-27}\mathrm{kg}$)
(1) ${10}^{20}\mathrm{kg}/{\mathrm{m}}^3$
(2) ${10}^{17}\mathrm{kg}/{\mathrm{m}}^3$
(3) ${10}^{14}\mathrm{kg}/{\mathrm{m}}^3$
(4) ${10}^{11}\mathrm{kg}/{\mathrm{m}}^3$

188.

The large scale destruction, that would be caused due to the use of nuclear weapons is called
(1) Nuclear holocaust
(2) Thermo-nuclear reaction
(3) Nuetron reproduction factor
(4) None of these

189.

The gas equation$\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}=$ constant is true for a constant mass of an ideal gas undergoing
1. Isothermal change
2. Adiabatic change
3. Isobaric change
4. Any type of change

190.

Two superposing waves are represented by the following equations:
\({\mathrm{y}_1=5 \sin 2 \pi(10 \mathrm{t}-0.1 \mathrm{x}), \mathrm{y}_2=10 \sin 2 \pi(10 \mathrm{t}-0.1 \mathrm{x}).}\)
Ratio of intensities$\frac{{\mathrm{I}}_{\max }}{{\mathrm{I}}_{\min }}$will be:
1. 1
2. 9
3. 4
​​​​​​​4. 16

191.

An electromagnetic wave going through the vacuum is described by$E=E_0\sin (kx-\omega t).$
Which is the following is/are independent of the wavelength?

192.

Source of an electromagnetic wave is
(1) A charge moving with constant velocity
(2) A charge at rest
(3) A charge moving in a circular orbit
(4) Charges cannot produce an EM wave

193.

In the diagram shown below, the image of the point object O is formed at l by the convex lens of focal length 20 cm, where$F_{1}and{F}_2$are foci of the lens. The value of x' is

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

194.

An electricbulb is connected in series with an inductor across a.c supply. When an iron is inserted in the inductor, the brightness of bulb
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. First increases the deceares
4. Remains the same

195.

A Gaussian surface is drawn enclosing the N-pole of a bar magnet. The net magnetic flux through the Gaussian surface will be:
(pole strength of N-pole is treated as positive and S-pole as negative)

196.

If by keeping number of turns per unit length constant, the volume of an air-core inductor is doubled, then its self-inductance will become/remain
1. Two times
2. Half
3. Same
4. Four times

197.

At the three corners of an equilateral triangle, charges are placed as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric field at point O is

1.$\frac{1}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0}\frac{2Q}{r^2}$
2.$\frac{1}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0}\frac{Q}{r^2}$
3.$\frac{1}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0}\frac{Q\sqrt{2}}{r^2}$
4.$\frac{1}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0}\frac{Q\sqrt{3}}{r^2}$

198.

An electric field in space is given by$\left(10\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\right)$unit, then electric flux through a surface of area 1 unit lying in yz plane is
1. 10 units
2. 17 units
3. 30 units
4. 40 units

199.

For the given figure, which of the following is true?

1.\(\overrightarrow{B}= \overrightarrow{A}+\overrightarrow{C}\)
2.\(\overrightarrow{A}= \overrightarrow{B}+\overrightarrow{C}\)
3.\(\overrightarrow{C}= \overrightarrow{A}+\overrightarrow{B}\)
4. All of these

200.

Consider the motion of the tip of the second hand of a clock. In one minute(assuming \(R\) to be the length of the second hand), its:

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